Sunday, December 16, 2007

How To Clear Herpes On Nose

What does "share of the vote"?


A certain Theddy (?-Bear) makes the following in a comment to my last post account:

"So, about 30% of voters has SVP elected. Voter turnout was about 50%. We had just under 15% of voters who have given the SVP's voice. The number of electors is even smaller than that of the population. As you may have a minor (about 22% of the total population) and foreigners (about 20% of the total population) off. Then would probably about 10% of the population, have chosen the SVP .

Theddy appears occasionally at Emeidi to look over. The latter fact made several months ago similar Zahlenspielchen .

The essence of the above "statement" is that you the voter shares of the parties subtracting the proportion of non-voters and those of non-voters, from which one of the more grotesque it is concluded that, of the SVP almost in spite of a share of the vote 30% 10% represent the popular will. (Analog then the SP would still represent about 7%, which is then not mentioned in the above calculations, surprisingly, ...)

The left computer are incorrect: If is mentioned in connection with elections and voting by the people, then it is of course always meant only that part which one hand on political rights and on the other hand has actually exercise such rights. The (hypothetical) willingness of the other part, has for the assessment of what people will be completely irrelevant or it is fake, that he is actually integrated into the expressed will of people.

that foreigners, incapacitated and have sub-18-year-old is not entitled to representation which is the applicable law and anyone who wants to change that, can get involved in politics accordingly. But as long as this legal status quo is, one can that part of the population not in the concept of 'nation' political Sense subsume. The same applies to the non-voters. Would be even better if non-voters would complain that they have no political representation ...

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